Over at Perverse Egalitarianism, Shahar has a brief post up on Mach and realism. Mach, in his The Analysis of Sensations, writes,
It has arisen in the process of immeasurable time without the intentional assistance of man.. It is a product of nature, and preserved by nature. Everything that philosophy has accomplished…is, as compared with it, but an insignificant and ephemeral product of art. The fact is, every thinker, every philosopher, the moment he is forced to abandon his one-sided intellectual occupation…immediately returns to [realism]. Nor is it the purpose of these “introductory” remarks to discredit the standpoint [of realism]. The task which we have set ourselves is simply to show why and for what purpose we hold that standpoint during most of our lives, and why and for what purpose we are…obligated to abandon it.
I think Shahar here draws attention to an important point with respect to the speculative realist movement pertaining to what it is and what it is not. It seems to me that it is important to distinguish between naive realism and other variants of realism. In the passage you cite above, Mach appears to be referring to naive realism. His remark here is not unlike Hume’s famous quip about his skepticism. As a philosopher, he remarked, he is a skeptic, unable to demonstrate the necessity of cause and effect relations, etc. However, the moment he plays billiards (i.e., is no longer doing philosophy), he believes in the absolutely necessity or reality of these cause and effect relations.
read on!
The naive realist, as I understand it, believes that the objects of our experience exist in-themselves exactly as we experience them, independent of us. Naive realism– which we could call the “spontaneous philosophy” of any non-reflective human being –is based on three key claims: First, the naive realist holds that the objects of our experience have colors, textures, are composed of matter, exist in a particular position in time and space, have flavors, and so on. Second, the naive realist holds that objects would have these properties regardless of whether or not humans perceived them. That is, these properties belong to objects independent of humans. Were no humans to exist, objects would still possess these colors, tastes, textures, etc. Third, the naive realist holds that our perception delivers us adequate knowledge of objects as they are.
With the possible exception of Graham Harman, and then only in a highly qualified sense, I know of no speculative realist that holds this position. We need not look to the exotic in our science to see why naive realism must be mistaken. From the standpoint of experience, the sun appears to rise and set, and the earth appears to stand still. Clearly perception or experience is not here a reliable guide to reality. Moreover, where tastes and colors are concerned, the taste of my wine changes depending on whether I am healthy or sick. Indeed, I can even change the taste of my wine by cultivating my palate. The cultivated wine drinker and the wine Philistine do not taste the same wine in the same way, but actually experience different qualia. This indicates that while wine might be a necessary condition for the taste of the wine, the flavor of the wine is not in the wine itself. Likewise, we know that one and the same stimuli can produce different color qualia in someone who is color blind, indicating that color is not in the object.
For my own part, and I cannot speak for all realists, I am happy to agree that the world, the real world, is not as we perceive it and that perception is not a reliable guide to the nature of the real. As Elaine of Seinfeld said of the naked male body, our lived phenomenological experience of objects in the world is like a jeep. It is designed not to deliver us to true reality, but rather is designed to get around in the world. In this respect, I am more than happy to advocate the position of correlationism where phenomenological lived experience is concerned. That is, I see the world of mid-level objects– those objects that we deal with in our day to day life like trees, markers, computers, rocks, etc. –as the result of a constitution that shares no or little resemblance to the real. Although I do not accept Kant’s particular version of correlationism for a variety of reasons, I am more than happy to side with Husserl, Heidegger, Merleau-Ponty, and Levinas in their descriptions of lived experience and the constitutional and genetic conditions for this experience.
The real, as it has so far been disclosed to quantum mechanics, relativity theory, molecular biology, genetics, evolutionary theory, neurology, etc., shares little resemblance to our phenomenological experience. For example, at the quantum level we find not matter, not objects that are strictly localized in time and space, but rather events, processes, energy, and waves that pop in and out of existence, that show remarkable connectivity with particles in vastly different regions of the universe and so on. Moreover, this real is mostly composed of space or void, not densely packed matter. As the physicists like to say, “if you don’t find quantum mechanics weird, then you haven’t understood it.” It simply has no parallel with our common sense experience.
The realist thesis is not that objects are as we experience them, but that when we do manage to grasp or know a bit of the real, our knowledge is not simply something for-us, but has disclosed properties that belong to the thing-itself and which do so regardless of whether or not humans exist. The radioactive decay of carbon atoms is not simply a phenomena that is for-us such that we have no idea whether or not carbon itself really possesses this property, but belongs to carbon atoms themselves, regardless of whether or not humans know it. These are properties of carbon atoms in-themselves, not appearances for humans. Unlike taste, these properties are in the carbon.
Here we encounter the key point that distinguishes the realist from the anti-realist. Beginning with Kant, we are told that we can never know things as they are in themselves but only as they are for-us or as phenomena. I have occasionally been charged with “hating Kant”, but if Kant has been a privileged figure in this discussion then this is because this key thesis reverberates throughout the subsequent history of philosophy. Thus we get a variety of correlationisms that widely depart from Kant’s correlationism. We get, for example, the “semio-correlationism” of Cassirer where it is not categories but signs and symbols that play the key role. We get the correlationism of the post-moderns and post-structuralists where it is signifiers that play this role. We get the correlationism of Foucault where it is power and discourse that plays this role. We get the correlationism of Husserl, Heidegger, and Merleau-Ponty where it is intentionality that plays this role. We get the correlationism of Gadamer where it is texts and history that play this role. We get the correlationism of Wittgenstein where it is language that plays this role. In one way or another, all of these positions restrict our knowledge to phenomena and where the debate revolves around what the most primordial correlation is. My arguments are not the result of “hating Kant”– having spent more time than I care to remember on Kant and having written a book that even strove to redeem Kant from a Deleuzian standpoint –but rather from having a genuine philosophical disagreement with correlationism. According to prison rules, you fight the biggest guy in the room to survive your internment. So it is with philosophy too.
The realist thesis– again Harman exempted –is that we do not just know phenomena or how things are for-us such that we must forever remain skeptical as to whether things themselves are this way, but that occasionally we grasp a bit of the real or come to know a bit about things-in-themselves. Likewise, it is not the thesis that we can speculate like Leibniz and conclude through a priori reasoning that this is the best of all possible worlds and that this world must find its ground in a “metaphysical necessity”. The speculative realist has learned the lessons of Hume and Kant well. He agrees that there is a distinction between purely speculative and dogmatic claims and genuine claims of knowledge. He does not endorse the claims of, say, String Theory, until there is experimental evidence to support these claims. He merely claims that our knowledge is not restricted to phenomena such that we must remain skeptical as to whether the world itself is this way.
His motivation for this is not difficult to discern. Our best knowledge, our scientific knowledge, has reached a point where we necessarily fall into paradox or contradiction if we adopt Kant’s restriction to knowledge. Kant was on the cusp of a scientific revolution that he himself did not live to see. Kant could still comfortably live in a world where humanity had not evolved, where life had not emerged from unliving matter, and where, therefore, there was never a time when humans did not exist. Moreover, he still lived in a time where dualism was a comfortable and obvious position, prior to the largely substantiated theory that consciousness emerges from the brain (still only about thirty or forty years old for us). However, from the standpoint of knowledge, both neurology and biology pose a crucial challenge to the Kantian position. As I argued in my posts on Meillassoux (here, here, here, and here), the “arche-fossil” poses a significant challenge to the Kantian thesis because it requires us to make knowledge claims about beings-in-themselves rather than beings-for-us.
Every claim about a time before life and humans presupposes a knowledge of a time prior to correlation, and therefore in excess of the correlationist thesis. The correlationist is thus faced with two alternatives: Either the correlationist can claim that these claims are meaningless, speculative, dogmatic claims and are therefore nonsense, or they can accept that knowledge is able to go beyond givenness to know things-in-themselves. The first thesis entails that the correlationist is equivalent to the Young Earth Creationist and therefore unacceptable. Thus the choice is clear: Accept Darwin and quantum mechanics (which allows us to know the rate of radioactive decay in carbon isotopes or denounce contemporary science as a dogmatic speculative construction).
The situation is similar with respect to neurology. When we discover the neurological grounds of consciousness, it becomes clear that our knowledge of the brain cannot simply be a “correlate” or a “phenomena” because the neurological is a condition for consciousness, not simply a phenomena for consciousness. Husserl famously said that Nature cannot be a condition for consciousness because Nature is the correlate of consciousness, i.e., Nature is the constituted correlate or phenomena of consciousness. As such, Husserl is necessarily a substance dualist. In making this claim, Husserl is merely being logically consistent and revealing the internal logic of correlationism. This is necessarily the outcome of any correlationist position. The idea of something being a condition of consciousness is necessarily incoherent from the standpoint of correlationist thought. The choice, then, is clear: Either we side with neurology and what it has been able to reveal about consciousness through its various investigations, or we adopt an untenable substance dualism and deny all of these findings.
When I reflect on the debate between the anti-realist or the correlationist and the realist, I cannot help but feel that the correlationist begins in the wrong place with his epistemological ruminations. This position is one characterized by abstraction. The correlationist begins from the question of how an individual mind or knower, a subject, can know an object. But in doing so, the correlationist already hopelessly mutilates the question. First, he completely ignores the ontogeny or development of minds, implicitly presupposing the mind of the adult. Thus, as I argued in my recent post on Edelman and Deleuze, he’s led to a sort of transcendental illusions where he treats products or results as a priori conditions for knowledge. Apparently the correlationist has never heard of Piaget. This fallacy is further reflected in treating knowledge in terms of a body of propositions rather than a process.
But more fundamentally, in treating the question of knowledge as a question of the relationship between subjects and objects, the correlationist ignores how science is actually practiced. As a result of this starting point, he ignores the experimental method, the fact that all sorts of technologies or measuring instruments such as super-colliders, telescopes, microscopes, computers, etc., have to be invented to study the world. The significance of these technologies is that they allow to transcend the limitations (and illusions) of our own perceptual systems. Finally, the correlationist, in many instances, ignores the fact that knowledge is not the product of a knower, but is instead a collective effort of many investigators working together over days, months, years, decades, and centuries (for my own part, I think that most knowledge really only began with Galileo with the exception of mathematical knowledge). This assumption of an individual knower striving to know to an object, leads to all sorts of false problems and questions where the question of knowledge necessarily gets posed in terms of perception or sensation as well as cognitive structure. Everything changes when we take into account experimentation, technology, and communities of knowers gradually building up knowledge.
April 22, 2009 at 2:46 pm
Yes, Levi, you are quite right to distinguish naive realism from other forms of realism. However, Mach’s point–as I understand it–is that all forms of realism are naive. In his view, at least in the text I cited above, phenomena are to be reduced to sensations which express their subjective character. If we want direct access to reality, then for Mach, the sensations are to be thought of as psychical entities. Then there’s the next move, that is, from the world of phenomena to the physical world. For Mach, what physics assumes as the reality of the world, be it matter, energy, atoms, electrons or why not, natural laws, the forms of space and time, me and you, are all merely abstractions from groups of phenomena. Mach synthesizes the two above moves by arguing that things/objects are nothing less than “sensation-complexes.”
Of course, Mach’s insistence on this structure was met with um…not a great deal of enthusiasm from the scientific community. It’s an odd position for a physicist to hold, no? That’s why I threw it up on PE, really.
April 22, 2009 at 3:54 pm
Right Shahar, I also think that there are a tremendous number of good reasons to reject the thesis that knowledge is all about sensations (the logical positivist position). One need only ask whether his thesis is based on sensations. Rut ro!
April 22, 2009 at 5:44 pm
[…] “The naive realist, as I understand it, believes that the objects of our experience exist in-t… […]
April 22, 2009 at 5:53 pm
Thanks for the response, Graham. As I said in my post, your realism makes room for some of the positions of the naive realist in a highly qualified sense. For example, when you speak of the existence of clowns, trees, and cotton, you’re treating these objects, if I understand you correctly, as real things. I take it that this comes from your phenomenological background. I myself am not so sure, though am open to being persuaded otherwise. It seems to me, however, that things like coffee and whatnot are the result of correlational structures between mind and world, not independent existences in their own right.
April 22, 2009 at 6:56 pm
I like that Harman writes this:
I wonder if maybe he can help us out here since last I remember the inability to distinguish between p-qualities and s-qualities (however defined, it seems) was a bit of a conundrum – how does he know which ones are PQs and which ones are SQ?
April 22, 2009 at 9:22 pm
Actually Harman does write more about the issue, but since he doesn’t have comments, I’m not sure how to engage his point – after stating how all “speculative realists” are concerned with the distinction betwee p- and s-qualities, he writes:
He says nothing about s-qualities, I’m assuming that they are the ones that are not primary. This point has been made repeatedly during Realism Wars but I suppose I can reiterate it again: if p-qualities are those qualities that belong to the object and cannot be known (unless “formalized” here means something different), why even bother with them?
Plus, what is the difference between Harman’s view quoted above and Kant’s thing-in-itself?
April 22, 2009 at 9:23 pm
Levi: “The realist thesis is not that objects are as we experience them, but that when we do manage to grasp or know a bit of the real, our knowledge is not simply something for-us, but has disclosed properties that belong to the thing-itself and which do so regardless of whether or not humans exist”
Kvond: Is this anything more than to say that when we have a proposed knowledge of the world, at least one that we share with others, there is, and MUST BE a connection?
Why this connection (which I read as causal) is then transformed into a rather ocular and metaphorical “disclosure of properties” I don’t know though.
April 22, 2009 at 9:43 pm
Mikhail, I agree. This would go back to our discussions about dogmatic and critical thought. In my view the realist is obligated to give an account of how we can know what we know. Claims about being that cannot be verified one way or another are, to my thinking, entirely speculative.
April 22, 2009 at 9:45 pm
Kvond, no, I’m not merely making the claim that there is a connection. For Kant, for example, there is a connection between phenomena and things-in-themselves as things-in-themselves “affect” the mind. I am making the claim that when we know something this knowledge is a knowledge of properties that belong to the thing-itself regardless of whether humans exist, not simply a knowledge of appearances or phenomena.
April 22, 2009 at 9:53 pm
Levi: ” I am making the claim that when we know something this knowledge is a knowledge of properties that belong to the thing-itself regardless of whether humans exist, not simply a knowledge of appearances or phenomena.”
Kvond: Well, this is the thing. I never understood the whole attraction of speaking about “properties”. A property is something owned by someone. It is a social construction. When Aristotle decided to speak about properties, he was making an analogy from social practices. When we talk about something “belonging” to something to my ear we are hopelessly analogical, and even rather anthropomorphic.
I am happy to say something like, “We know more than we can say” (which you’ll encounter in Wheeler’s book), but then I realize that I’m playing games with the word “know”. I honestly don’t know where these word-uses get us, except for the comfort of feeling that we’ve hit rock-bottom, that we are finally on firm, hard ground.
Because I’m much more pragmatic in my approach, I’m much happier settling for a kind of “this works very well, and we might find something that works even better than this in the future” without having to claim, “this works very well because we now know some of the properties of the thing in itself”. This is a fantasy to me. I don’t know where it gets us, other than in some rather heated arguments.
April 22, 2009 at 10:08 pm
Kvond,
I’m highly sympathetic to your critique of the term “properties” here, though on somewhat different grounds. I think the substance-predicate logic that has dominated the history of philosophy has generated a set of false philosophical problems. Insofar as I’m committed to the thesis that objects are events and processes, this is not a logic that I myself advocate. Consequently, “property” is just a manner of speaking.
I’m fine with your pragmatic approach. I’m not at all opposed to the view that theories evolve and get revised. This is why I use expressions like “grasp a bit of the real”. I think we grasp the real in bits and pieces, never in toto. Newton grasped a bit of the real, Einstein grasped a bit more. Einstein didn’t overturn Newton, but rather showed that his theory doesn’t work at certain levels of scale. My commitment to realism arises from the fact that we find ourselves locked in certain logical contradictions if we don’t advocate realism. Husserl, for example, wants to say that Nature cannot be a condition of consciousness because Nature is constituted by consciousness. This means that the Husserlian phenomenologist is forced to deny all of neurology. I just don’t think this is a tenable position and that the only way to solve the problem is bite the bullet and affirm that there is something real that produces consciousness, something that isn’t merely a construction or the result of a phenomenological constitution, and that thing is the brain.
April 22, 2009 at 10:18 pm
Yes. I suppose that I deal with the entire Husserlian, German Idealist branch by lopping of it off right at its Cartesian base, and so I am much less interested in the contradictions therein. Perhaps it is the case that you want to save as much as you can from this philosophical tradition through an appeal to Realism, whereas I find much of it founded upon a mix of analogies and an incorrect view of consciousness, and am much more willing to toss the whole thing out as an interesting dead-end.
But we are in agreement with the “false problems” of predicate logic.
April 22, 2009 at 10:44 pm
Kevin, I like that “property”-“property” correlation (is this word now forever ruined?) and the whole business of Aristotle/social practice and modeling object’s properties on private/public property (I’m assuming) – can you say more?
April 22, 2009 at 11:08 pm
My only worry about the “property-property” correlation is that it risks what might be called the normative fallacy. By the “normative fallacy” I mean something similar to one version of the naturalistic fallacy where one tries to derive an “is” from an “ought”. I’ve noticed a number of instances where people seem to conclude from what ought to be the case to what is the case, dismissing certain phenomena because they don’t conform to their norms or values.
April 22, 2009 at 11:11 pm
For example, some here on this blog dismissed psychotropic drugs on the grounds that they were a part of neo-liberal ideology. Certainly it may be true that psychotropics are bound up with neo-liberal ideology, but that has nothing to do with the efficacy of these drugs. To address the issue of efficacy you need another type of argument or analysis, not one from values and ideological commitments to efficacy of drugs. These kinds of arguments seem rife among the cultural studies/political theory crowd.
April 22, 2009 at 11:23 pm
M.E.: “Kevin, I like that “property”-”property” correlation (is this word now forever ruined?) and the whole business of Aristotle/social practice and modeling object’s properties on private/public property (I’m assuming) – can you say more?”
Kvond: Yes, I think this does have consequences toward the private/public property divison, possibly with some reference to private and public languages (Wittgenstein).
To my ear this philosophical word is indeed ruined forever.
Here is the Greek Lexicon entry for Aristotle’s Idion (I don’t know if the Greek fonts will work for you without setting them, but you’ll get a sense of the word):
http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/morph.jsp?l=i%29%2Fdion&la=greek#lexicon
Something that “belongs” to something in indeed private to it, so the propeties of the “thing-in-itself” (supposedly) would be private properties, things it owns. But we all know that privacy is a product of publicness. For me, notions of “property” are necessarily analogized from social constructions.
Perhaps others have ideas on how the notion of applying “ownership” to objects spells itself out in terms of privacy and publicness, and whether such an analogy has any grounds for merit. It is not something that I have drawn from any author, but simply something that struck me rather firmly when reading Aristotle to trace the origin of this usage.
April 22, 2009 at 11:38 pm
p.s. To see the entry, hit the, Show lexicon entry in “LSJ” for the form “idios”
April 23, 2009 at 3:10 pm
I don’t know if I’m entirely persuaded by a simple reference to a dictionary, words mean all sort of things, I thought maybe you had a specific text or a study in mind.
April 24, 2009 at 1:35 am
Forgive me I thought I’d help you out with a reference to the lexicon. Were you under the impression I was making an argument and attempting to persuade you? I was giving you the tools to do some thinking on your own (not knowing if you had any knowledge of Greek or Greek literature).
April 24, 2009 at 1:56 am
Kevin,
Was that addressed to me?
April 24, 2009 at 2:13 am
I’m sorry, I should have quoted as my usual. It was to M.E.’s:
“I don’t know if I’m entirely persuaded by a simple reference to a dictionary, words mean all sort of things, I thought maybe you had a specific text or a study in mind.”
Which I assumed was a response to my answer to his follow-up on Aristotle’s property-property analogization.
April 24, 2009 at 3:30 am
sorry, i did think you had an argument or a reference to a source that argues that Aristotle had in mind something like “possessions” or “property” in legal sense when he talked about “properties” of an object – a simple reference to a dictionary, i’m afraid, isn’t really doing it for me – that’s all i meant.
April 24, 2009 at 3:32 am
[…] Realism and naive realism. Pretty interesting discussion. Makes me want to read Graham Harman too. Although I’ll be working through Badiou for a while. […]
April 24, 2009 at 3:36 am
Kevin’s observation is a fairly common observation of how Aristotle arrived at his various categories and various metaphysical claims, Mikhail. You’ll find observations such as this peppered throughout Heidegger’s work, for example.
April 24, 2009 at 4:06 am
M.E.:”i did think you had an argument or a reference to a source that argues that Aristotle had in mind something like “possessions” or “property” in legal sense when he talked about “properties” of an object”
Kvond: I guess you missed the part of my answer where I said rather explicitly, ruling out a reference to a-source-that-argues,
“It is not something that I have drawn from any author, but simply something that struck me rather firmly when reading Aristotle to trace the origin of this usage.”
I’m sure that someone must have made this case in some way for the conflation seems pretty evident. For instance you can look at his corresponding treatment of the general (nomos koinos) and the particular law (nomos idios), and its relationship to the written and unwritten law. But the conflation need not be in any way explicit. In general, I find the use of the concept of the “idion” to be an analogy of social constructions, and the English translation to be more than revealing.
Levi, I did not realize that Heidegger wrote about this. Quite interesting.
April 24, 2009 at 4:17 am
i’m not disputing anything here, fellows, i just thought i’d ask for a quick reference, that’s all, maybe there was a book about it or something – i appreciate that you came up with it yourself…
April 24, 2009 at 4:21 am
As for primary and secondary qualities, is it still fair to expect that Harman might in fact engage the issue here on the blog?
May 25, 2009 at 8:21 am
HI.thank you.