In response to a terrific post by Nick over at Speculative Heresy, the debate surrounding correlationism has continued to swirl. I tried to post a long comment responding to criticisms by Mikhail and Alexei over there, but for some reason it wouldn’t post, so I’ll post it here. I also worry that Nick might be getting upset by the “thread jack” of his own post, as the issues have diverged markedly from the claims he was there making.
Quoting me, Mikhail responds:
Within a Kantian framework we cannot make sense of the idea of a time belonging to things in themselves, but this is precisely what is required by knowledge statements about times that precede the existence of humans or life.
Actually, as I mentioned several times, this is not a “Kantian framework” – Leibniz already had issues with Newtonian absolute time (and so did, if I understand it, Einstein, but don’t quote me here) – let me ask you this simple non-scientifically phrased question: was there time before the Big Bang?
It is difficult to have this discussion if we do not define our terms. Up to this point I have been assuming that by “absolute time” Mikhail referring to time pertaining to things-in-themselves. He now evokes Newton, yet, subsequent science has refuted Newton’s particular account of time and space. From here on out, I will use the term “absolute time” to refer to time belonging to things-in-themselves rather than time imposed on things by mind. It will be understood that this time is broadly construed and in need of a detailed definition. I take it that it is the responsibility of science to define this time, not philosophers.
read on!
This aside, it seems to me that we cannot place Leibniz and Kant in the same basket. While Leibniz certainly believed that time and space were a sort of illusion, this was for metaphysical reasons entirely different than those of Kant’s. The arguments I’m putting forward are addressed to Kant and subsequent post-Kantian correlationist philosophy, so we should stick to this framework. If these arguments apply to Leibniz as well, so much the worse for Leibniz.
As for the question of whether there was a time before the big bang, that is not a question I can answer from my armchair. That is a question for the scientist to answer through careful research, investigation, and experimentation.
Mikhail goes on to say:
If these are my only choice, I’m going to believe Kant because my eyes are indeed very lying, things look very solid to me when I know that physically speaking a block of granite is as empty as a block of air – you in fact (together with QM) are sneaking in a concept of time, absolute time (as opposed to relative time) without ever explaining where it comes from, it just is, right? because “all evidence – self-explanatory evidence – just points to it” – c’mmon, I’m sure you can do better than that!
Alright, it is good to know this. Mikhail is going with the evidences of his perception as a reliable guide to the nature of reality. That is fine so far as it goes, but there is a good deal of evidence indicating that reality is very little like the world as we experience it. As I said in previous exchanges, I am more than happy to be a correlationist concerning the world of our experience, but I do not take that world as a reliable guide to the nature of the world in itself. Indeed, I think that since Galileo a good deal of scientific work has consisted in finding ways to escape the limitations and distortions created by the way we experience the world in our day to day lives. As for the question of where this time comes from, I’m not even sure I understand that question. Exactly what is Mikhail asking?
Quoting me again, Mikhail goes on to remark:
This is part of the whole anti-correlationist position: that the world as it appears to us in our day to day lives shares very little resemblance to the world as it is in itself.
No offense, and I know you’re sensitive about religion and all, but this sounds to me like a confession of faith rather than a philosophical position – all kinds of objections can be and are continuously raised against this position, yet you keep reciting it as if it is a credo of your anti-correlationist faith.
Not at all. Faith is the belief in something without any evidence or support. My view that the world as it is in-itself is very different than the world of our empirical experience is based on what the experimental evidence indicates, not a blind faith or a simple conviction.
Quoting me, Mikhail goes on to write:
You are suggesting that position x is true because your opponent doesn’t have a solution to a particular issue.
No, I am not – read my objection again, I suggest that it is unfair to assume something that an opponent does not agree with – a particular notion of time – and then, based on this unshared assumption to purport to destroy the opponent’s position – where exactly is my fallacy?
The thing is, I didn’t assume this. Rather, I argued that the theory of evolution is only intelligible if a time belonging to things-in-themselves exists. Mikhail is free, of course, to be skeptical of the theory of evolution, geology, the radioactive decay of isotopes, etc., and then we have a different debate as to why these things should be accepted. Of course, in my view it would be unreasonable to deny these findings and if Mikhail does, in fact, deny these findings then I think he confirms my thesis that correlationists are trying to create a self-enclosed bubble for themselves immune to any criticism or refutation. If that’s the case, let the correlationists have their bubble and do as their please, though given that they’ve chosen to abandon intersubjective standards of discourse, there’s no reason they should be taken seriously if this is the case.
Mikhail writes:
QM does not do it that obviously, but he does introduce the idea of “time of science” without ever considering the implications, without really raising the whole issue of what time is – or maybe I’m missing something?
I agree that the realists have more work to do on just what physical time is, but I don’t think this undermines the essentials of his argument. It is clear minimally this time must belong to things-in-themselves and that’s all he needs to advance his claim. It’s nice to have more philosophical work to do. Meillassoux is simply taking Kant and the phenomenologists at their word with respect to the conditions for scientific investigation and inquiry to the world and asking how it is possible to have a time not indexed by a consciousness, i.e., the time of the arche-fossil.
Alexei, jumping into the fray, writes:
Notice though, that a Kantian doesn’t actually say that the pure form of time is a condition of mind. A Kantian says that the pure intuition of time is a condition of the possibility of experience. Somehow we’ve managed to assimilate ‘conditions of possible experience’ to the ‘conditions of mind’ and — worse — ‘conditions of mind’ have been assimilated to ‘grounds of cognition’. There’s a pretty big difference among these notions here. It’s also worth pointing out that there’s a set of very good reasons for distinguishing among conditions for something, grounds for something , and determinations of something. The present discussion seems to level out these differences.
Yes, what Alexei says here about Kant’s position goes without saying or is, I think, agreed upon by everyone involved in this debate. But that is not the issue. The issue is that according to the well supported theories of evolution and neurology, Nature is a, if not the, condition of mind, not the reverse. But the correlationist claims just the opposite: that mind is the condition of Nature, not the reverse. Nature, for the correlationist, is purely a phenomena such that the idea of phenomena giving rise to the conditions (mind) is not intelligible or consistent. If all of these distinctions are being flattened then this is because this flattening is what is required of by our best biological theories concerning the emergence of life and the human. This would be a prime example of a situation where our science requires a significant revision of how certain philosophical problems have been posed, but strangely, oddly, this gets ignored by a certain style of philosophy as if these discoveries make no difference and we can continue talking about the world blithely as if Darwin makes no difference as to how we conceive the nature of mind.
Alexei goes on to write:
It’s also worth pointing out that “Geological Time” isn’t really different from “cosmological time,” or the two very different from “evolutionary time,” or “human time.” It’s all the same “time” — It’s just the interval or period (the metric, which is ultimately a human imposition, a way we make various kinds of shifts coherent to ourselves) that shifts in relation to the “rate of measurable change” that a particular discipline requires. Quite simply put, it’s a matter of perspective, not a question of qualitiatively different ‘times’.
I think that both the realist and the anti-realist can agree that metric time is a human imposition. Whether we use an atomic clock, a watch, a sun-dial, etc., to measure time is largely arbitrary. What is not arbitrary, for the realist, however, is what is measured. Moreover, Kant is not making a claim about metric time– were he making such a claim there’s really be no debate here –but is making a claim about time as such and claiming that time is imposed on the world by mind and does not belong to the things themselves. As Kant writes in the First Critique:
Our assertions accordingly teach the empirical reality of time, i.e., objective validity in regard to all objects that may ever be given to our senses. And since our intuition is always sensible, no object can ever be given to us in experience that would not belong under the condition of time. But, only the contrary, we dispute all claim of time to absolute reality, namely where it would attach to things absolute as a condition or property even without regard to the form of our sensible intuition. Such properties, which pertain to things in themselves, can never be given to us through the senses. In this therefore consists the transcendental idealist of time, according to which it is nothing at all if one abstracts from the subjective conditions of sensible intuition, and cannot be counted as either subsisting or inhering in the objects in themselves (without their relation to our intuition). (A35-36/B52).
This quote, in a nutshell, captures the entire problem or nub of the debate. Those of us on the realist side have been charged with “misreading Kant” or “misinterpreting him”, but all we’ve done is take him at his word. For in order to account for times prior to life and especially humans, we have to posit a time belonging to things themselves. But this is explicitly forbidden by Kant’s position. Claims pertaining to things in themselves cannot but appear dogmatic to the Kantian.
Mikhail writes:
My response was to Levi’s proposal that I choose between Kant and my own eyes – admittedly a half-joking one – which I take to mean something like: choose between philosophical arguments (say about time not being a substance, but a relation) or crude empirical data that apparently speaks for itself.
The phrase “crude empirical data” reveals a whole lot. What is it about these theories and this data that is “crude”? These findings are the results of hundreds of years of human labor, experiment, and investigation, requiring the development of sophisticated models and experiments. I am not sure where Mikhail gets the idea that the realist is committed to the thesis that the “data speaks for itself”. Indeed, Mikhail seems to be conflating the realist position with the position of naive realism where one believes that we can just “look at the world” and know how it is. The realist, by contrast, knows that knowledge is the result of hard labor, cannot be arrived at from the armchair, and requires careful experimentation, model building, technological developments, and the careful gathering of data. The data only begins to “speak” in light of these models and often it shows that these models are mistaken. The data that is being offered here is not the result of some bare datum like an empirical sense-impression, but belongs to highly articulated, well confirmed, and well developed theories about the nature of the world. At any rate, Mikhial’s phrase here at least gives confirmation, writ large, of what the realists have been claiming about the correlationists: that ultimately they are dismissive of science and believe that it can be rejected out of hand. That’s fine, but the anti-realists should be upfront about it. From the realist standpoint the idea that we can simply sit in our armchairs and reflect on the intentional structure of our lived experience, thereby gaining access to the nature of reality is a crude position.
Mikhail writes:
Again, the burden of proof is not on so-called correlationists – Kant has a perfectly fine (you don’t have to like it or agree with it) explanation of how it is possible both to think that time is a form of intuition and that physics actually empirically deals with objects and so on (empirical realism and transcendental idealism) – it is on QM and Levi, yet all I hear is stuff like: How do you account for arche-fossil taking that what science tell us about it indisputable? Ah you cannot, then you are damned to correlationist hell!
In fact Kant does not have such an account. This is the philosophical claim that QM is making.
Finally Mikhail writes:
My problem with that, as I stated many times, is that Levi is a philosopher, not a scientist, which is to say not that he doesn’t have appropriate expertise or anything of that sort, but that he approaches issues from a philosophical perspective of realism etc etc. Yet he throws around scientific data as if it somehow makes the argument in itself – data or examples are still in need of interpretation when it comes to their use in philosophical arguments – I’m not a scientist, I don’t know shit about specific scientific data or methods, but if you translate it into a philosophical argument, I’m all about it. That was my point. As I also commented to Levi, he seems to be seeking solace in Science (intentional capitalization), which is fine with me, but I constantly come off as some obscurantist anti-science weirdo because I dare to question something that is apparently self-evident such as “absolute time” which it is not at all.
Apparently, according to Mikhail, there is some distribution of disciplines where philosophers can simply ignore the findings of the sciences and say whatever they like about consciousness, the nature of the world, the mind, etc., and expect to be taken seriously. Rather, when confronted with the argument from the arche-fossil it sounds to me like Mikhail is sticking his fingers in his ears and singing “Mary Had a Little Lamb” and saying “na na na na, give a philosophical account!” I am not seeking “solace in Science” as Mikhail would put it (nice speculation about motives here, i.e., red herring), but simply trying to articulate a philosophy that squares with the facts of our world. Mikhail, in his meditations about consciousness, mind, time, etc., is doing the equivalent of insisting on the truth of Aristotlean physics after Galileo.
April 27, 2009 at 6:23 pm
[…] at his own blog. Asher adds some rather hilarious (in a good way!) thoughts into the mix. And Levi continues the debate at his blog. Possibly related posts: (automatically generated)Virtualist metaphysics: Explanations and other […]
April 27, 2009 at 7:16 pm
From here on out, I will use the term “absolute time” to refer to time belonging to things-in-themselves rather than time imposed on things by mind.
I’m afraid you’re setting up the issue in precisely the way I was complaining about – how can you simply designate a meaning of “absolute time” (a really well-known phrase, by the way, I don’t understand why you pretend like I am making it up) as “belonging to things-in-themselves” when the whole setup of our debate is based on our disagreement concerning the accessibility of such things-in-themselves? You have already stacked the desk with this very sentence – no wonder you eventually win the game, so to speak.
“Absolute time” of Newton, as far as I can tell, still works just fine in classical physics, or for that matter in clocks…
April 27, 2009 at 7:21 pm
And scientists, of course, are addressing this question not from an armchair, right? This is exactly what I meant when I wrote that you are cowardly hiding behind Science when the push comes to shove – you are philosopher, Levi! Can’t you at least give me a guess? If you are afraid to ask a question like “what is time?” then why even bother? So you don’t know whether there was time before the Bing Bang, or you are unable to offer a guess, a theory, a philosophical reflection – just say it then, don’t hide behind the backs of scientists…
April 27, 2009 at 7:28 pm
Levi, this is exactly the opposite of what I wrote – read my comment again: you give me a choice between Kant and my lying eyes, I read it as suggesting that my choice is between theory and evidence, I choose theory – you write that I choose evidence. Are you going to misread my every statement like that? I mean I’m sure you’re going to write a long comment explaining exactly how you read my comment as opposite to what I actually said, and tell me that if you did misread it, it was not intentional, but please – I say A and you claim that I say non-A.
I’m going to stop now as I am beginning to wonder if you’re even reading my comments or you’re just waiting for your turn to speak.
April 27, 2009 at 7:34 pm
I’m sorry, I don’t mean it as an offensive comment, but have you read much of Guerrilla Metaphysics and all that stuff about “vicarious causation” – how is that not ignoring the findings of the sciences and saying whatever we like about the nature of objects and their relations?
April 27, 2009 at 7:53 pm
[…] 27, 2009 by Mikhail Emelianov Levi offers another one of his characteristic “pick and choose” and wildly distorted interpretations of my […]
April 27, 2009 at 8:14 pm
I don’t know if Mikhail is going to respond over here, so I thought I’d point out that he is saying the opposite about perception than you say he is here:
“Mikhail is going with the evidences of his perception as a reliable guide to the nature of reality”
That he is saying the opposite is apparent if you go back and read the passage you quoted right before this.
April 27, 2009 at 9:44 pm
Mikhail,
You write:
The point is that you are attributing claims and positions to me that I have not myself advanced in any of these discussions. All I am saying is that as far as I am concerned, the question of what this time pertaining to things in themselves is is an open question for me. I have not presented any account of the nature of this time beyond the claim that it belongs to the things themselves. Moreover, your thesis about absolute time working just fine in physics is simply not true. This time has been rejected by both quantum mechanics and relativity physics. Finally, I am not “stacking the deck” or “begging the question” by stipulating what I have in mind by absolute time. I am simply stipulating what I mean by the term. The question of whether or not this absolute time is something we have knowledge of is still debatable once the definition is stipulated. I happen to think, of course, that we do have access to this absolute time through our sciences and the experimental evidence of our sciences, you disagree. So far I haven’t found your disagreement persuasive or seen how the correlationist can account for the arche-fossil within your framework without falling into a contradiction.
You go on to write after quoting me:
No, the scientists are not addressing this question from their armchair. They are arriving at their claims based on a variety of observational evidences pertaining to the speed of light, the red shift in the color spectrum, and the movement of the various galaxies that we can observe. Moreover, a number of scientists are more than happy to state that with our current state of science we cannot know what was before the big bang or what caused the big bang and that claims to the contrary are entirely speculative. This might change, but I’m fine accepting their findings so far on this matter.
You go on to write after quoting me:
I did not express myself very well here. In making this remark I was making a point about philosophical methodology with respect to transcendental accounts. How is it that Kant arrives at his conclusions concerning the nature of mind? In my view he arrives at these conclusions through the reflective analysis of his own lived perception and through introspection on his own cognitive operations. That is, there is an implicit phenomenology, as Heidegger argued, at work in his thoughts. Hence the reference to “perception”. What we are choosing between is not evidence versus theories, but rather two different theories. Insofar as I distrust the reliability of introspection and phenomenology, I am skeptical of the Kantian methodology. I instead side with the theories derived from neurology, physics, and biology because they are experimentally grounded by a community of scientists and have been confirmed again and again. You seem to, in my view, giving a certain infallible status to introspection and the description of lived experience that I think is untenable given the facts.
Quoting me you go on to write:
This is a debate between you and Graham, not you and me. Nothing I have been arguing vis a vis Meillassoux’s argument from the arche-fossil has been undertaken in reference to Graham’s views or based on his views of vicarious causation. Moreover, in the past I have expressed a number of criticisms of his account of vicarious causation and infinitely withdrawn objects. It does not follow that because I or anyone else is defending a realist position all of those realist positions are the same or that realists are in agreement with one another. Just as there are debates between realists and correlationists, there are debates among various realist proposals and debates among various correlationist perspectives. Graham is not guilty of my claims, nor me guilty of Graham’s.
April 27, 2009 at 10:26 pm
Seriously? You are claiming in this very sentence that time belongs to the things themselves while telling me that you are not presenting any account of the nature of time – claiming that time belongs to things themselves is an account of time, even if you don’t justify why you think this is the case.
I think you’re confusing Kant with Descartes. Kant is not a neuroscientist or philosopher of mind, he does not concern himself primarily with the “nature of mind,” but with conditions of possibility of knowledge, and he does not need “reflective analysis” or “introspection” – he has experience and cognition:
“There can be no doubt that all our knowledge begins with experience. For how should our faculty of knowledge be awakened into action did not objects affecting our senses partly of themselves produce representations, partly arouse the activity of our understanding to compare these representations, and, by combining or separating them, work up the raw material of the sensible impressions into that knowledge of objects which is entitled experience? In the order of time, therefore, we have no knowledge antecedent to experience, and with experience all our knowledge begins. But though all our knowledge begins with experience, it does not follow that it all arises out of experience.”
I appreciate your elaborate explanation of how you in fact did not make me say the opposite of what I said, but a simple “sorry, I must have misread your comment” would do just fine, god knows I do it all the time, anyone without sin etc etc
April 27, 2009 at 11:10 pm
[…] conflates the metrics we use to measure the world with what is measured. As I argued in my previous post, these metrics are arbitrary, but it does not follow from that that what we measure is itself a […]
April 27, 2009 at 11:20 pm
Mikhail,
Quoting me, you go on to write:
I’m not sure why you’re incredulous here. Yes, my position is that time is a property of things-in-themselves. What the further properties of time might be, I am not prepared to say, nor, I think, can the philosopher answer this question without a thorough examination of the scientific research. Phenomenological experience simply can’t answer this question because it requires experimentation, the gathering of data, and measurement which, obviously, we, as philosophers, don’t do.
You go on to write:
Nope, I don’t think I’m confusing Kant with Descartes. First, Kant is a continuation of the Cartesian approach to philosophy premised on reflection. How do you think Kant arrives these conclusions about the nature of experience? Through an reflective analysis of his own experience. What is it that makes Kant’s arguments compelling as opposed to direct claims about objects? The representational thesis that we have direct access to the content of our own consciousness but only relate to objects through the medium of representations which entails that claims about objects must always remain in doubt because insofar as we’re only directly related to our representations of objects we can never know whether or not these representations resemble the objects themselves. Now these strong claims about our relationship to the contents of our own consciousness happen to be empirically testable. This is why the findings of neurology and cognitive science regarding the corrigibility of our introspective claims are relevant to these debates.
April 27, 2009 at 11:22 pm
Levi: ” How is it that Kant arrives at his conclusions concerning the nature of mind? In my view he arrives at these conclusions through the reflective analysis of his own lived perception and through introspection on his own cognitive operations.”
Kvond: But, does not for Kant “reflective analysis” and “introspection” not have a theoretical standing, a traction, that you do not grant. This is to say, the “evidence” Kant draws on does not have the same standing in the two “theories”. It’s not that Kant looked simply “inside” and scientists look “outside”. Kant thought he was looking at the very conceptually connective tissue that even produces inside and outside. He was not, in his view, looking phenomenologically.
Would you agree with this?
April 27, 2009 at 11:24 pm
p.s. sorry, too many “nots” in the first question.
April 27, 2009 at 11:28 pm
Kvond,
I am not entirely sure I understand what you’re asking, but I think I would agree with it. Based on my readings in neurology and cognitive science in experiments working with brain damaged patients as well as other experiments where subjects are questioned about their thought process in relation to seeing words flashed on a screen below their threshold of perception, for example, I’ve concluded that introspection is an extremely unreliable guide to the nature of thought. Thus, while I think phenomenology has a lot to teach us about how we experience the world, it is not, in my view, the final word nor an unassailable foundation as the Cartesian tradition (or even the empiricist tradition) would have it. As I argued in my post on Edelman (https://larvalsubjects.wordpress.com/2009/04/17/edelman-deleuze-transcendental-empiricism-and-the-ontogeny-of-information/) I also think that Kant’s model of thought and mind is an extreme distortion of how thought actually works.
April 28, 2009 at 12:50 am
I’m incredulous not about your position – please, read my comment, but about your ability both to say that you are not proposing any theory of time and to propose a theory of time in the same sentence.
I’m going to have to leave at this, the discussion over at Speculative Heresy is much more interesting and productive…
April 28, 2009 at 5:06 pm
[…] has a post on the matter, with Levi’s always-already-there response here, plus a couple of exchanges at Larval Subjects and a continuation of the thread at Speculative Heresy. Things are heated but […]